AWESOME WITNESSING, RIGHT HERE!!
Thank you, brother Bryan!!
Dear brother Jithin,
Well, I hope you are ready for a VERY long email reply! :) The
questions you have asked will require some lengthy answers. Here we
go…
“1)
-->Luke 23:43
“And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt
thou be with me in paradise.”
Jesus tells these words to one of the thief, out of the two who were
nailed to the cross on his left and right side.
But how can that be true, because Jesus ascended into heaven only on
the third day after he had died.”
The mistake you made here (and MANY people do the same thing too) is
that you assumed that the words “paradise” and “heaven” are the same.
They are NOT in this verse! You must ask yourself the question, where
did Jesus go when he died? The answer is found in Matthew 12:40, where
it says Jesus went to the “heart of the earth”. This place was also
called “Abraham’s bosom” in Luke 16:22.
This study is very detailed. I have a sermon on this issue called,
“Where Do The dead go?” Here is a link to it:
http://www.sermonaudio.com/sermoninfo.asp?SID=6610134112
Basically, Old Testament saints could not go straight to heaven at
death because their sins weren’t paid for until Calvary. They went
down to the “heart of the earth” and slept there until Jesus came down
and took them out. (I give all of the scriptures in my message, so I
won’t take the time to spell everything out here.) This is why Jesus
said to the dying thief, “to day shalt thou be with me in paradise.”
Jesus was referring to the place where dead Old Testament saints went.
“Also how can one be taken into heaven(or hell) as soon as he/she
Dies because In revelation it says that, the saved people will be
caught up with Jesus in the Rapture just BEFORE his second coming and
the judgment of unsaved are done, after the second coming...”
Again, a lot of this is covered in my sermon. The thing you need to
understand is that a Christian like you and me is NOT under the same
conditions as a saved man in the Old Testament. We are actually PART
OF Christ’s body! They weren’t in the Old Testament.
Paul says that “to be absent from the body” is to be “present with the
Lord” in 2 Corinthians 5:8. He also says in Ephesians 2:4-6 that we
are currently sitting “together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus.”
Now, our bodies will not be resurrected until we are caught up in the
rapture. This is mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:44-58 and 1
Thessalonians 4:16-18.
The “first resurrection” mentioned in Revelation 20:5 takes place at
the end of the coming 7 year “time of Jacob’s trouble”. BUT, this does
NOT involve Christians! Our PART in the “first resurrection” takes
place BEFORE the time of Jacob’s trouble, at the rapture. The “first
resurrection” isn’t over until the end of the millennial kingdom.
Look at 1 Corinthians 15:20-23. It says that Christ is the
“firstfruits of them that slept.” This is a reference to the Old
Testament saints in Abraham’s bosom. Verse 23 says, “Christ the
firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ’s at his coming.” The
“first resurrection” consists of 1. Old Testament saints taken up with
Jesus Christ after his death on the cross. 2. Christians who are part
of Christ’s body, taken up at the rapture. 3. Tribulation saints who
were martyred. (Rev. 6:9-11) 4. Saints who die in the millennial
kingdom.
“So what these verses means...
Some say that in Hebrew the comma was not after thee but after Today
(and that, it was just an unfortunate editing mistake on the KJV).
Then it would read like this:
“And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee To day, shalt thou be
with me in paradise.”
Then the meaning would be like ‘today I tell you that, you will be
with me in paradise’,
This seems appropriate, as it is in accordance with the scripture.
ARE THEY TELLING THE TRUTH BROTHER?
I have heard and I believe that nothing is contradictory in KJV of bible.
But I have also heard the KJV believing people saying that if some
mistakes are there in KJV it’s only the editing mistakes made by men.
Is LUKE 23:43 one of those man made editing mistake?”
Anytime someone tries to tell you that the KJV translators made a
mistake, or were somehow not learned, you can rest assured that
whoever told you this, didn’t know what they were talking about! The
KJV translators were MASTERS of the English language! They knew
exactly what they were doing. Not to mention the fact that God himself
made sure that His Holy Bible came out just the way He wanted it!
There isn’t ANY mistake in Luke 23:43. The dying thief went with Jesus
to Abraham’s bosom/paradise on the DAY when they both died on their
crosses. This has since changed, and a Christian who dies will NOT go
down, but rather UP to be with the Lord Jesus Christ in heaven!
“2)
-->Luke 22:19
“And he took bread, and gave..........................do in remembrance of me”
So Jesus told us to do it in memory of him.
Catholics are wrong with most of the things which they practice as
they are not going in accordance with the scriptures.
But are they true in their Holy Communion concept...
A plain thought says that, nothing is wrong in it, as it is said in Luke 22:19.
But I heard that a priest does some special kind of prayers and then
they consider themselves as Jesus when they give the communion to the
Catholics.
How do you explain that Brother?”
You must always compare the scriptures in the four gospels with the
writings of Paul from Romans to Philemon. Paul was the “apostle to the
Gentiles” (Romans 11:13) so his instructions are written directly to
Christians today. Many things in the gospels are describing the
transition from Old Testament to the New Testament which started with
the death of Jesus on the cross. (Hebrews 9:15-17)
The instructions for Christians concerning communion, are given in 1
Corinthians 11:23-26. YES, a Christian should observe a communion
service as a REMEMBRANCE of the death of Jesus. NO, the Catholic
church didn’t come up with this practice! The Roman Catholic mass is
the re-sacrificing of Jesus Christ for the sins of the people. This is
CLEARLY condemned in Hebrews 10:10-14. The Catholics take a simple
memorial of Christ’s death, and turn it into a horrible, blasphemous
ceremony!
“3)
-->BIBLE reveals that Jesus is son of god in many cases like in
Matthew 16:13-17,
Matthew 17:5, etc;
Similarly Jesus calls himself as Son of man in Matthew 20:18 and in
many other verses.
Now brother, my doubt is that WHAT DID JESUS MEANT BY CALLING HIMSELF
SON OF MAN?
Because Jesus is born of no man but from Holy spirit...”
When Jesus was around the Jews, he wanted to show them that he was
their prophesied Messiah. He could not have fulfilled the Old
Testament prophecies, if he were of any other race. Look at what the
angel told Mary in Luke 1:28-33. In verse 32 the angel says, “…the
Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David.” Now,
OBVIOUSLY David was NOT the birth father of Jesus Christ!
The angel was saying that Jesus would one day sit on the throne of the
JEWISH kingdom. Two Jewish genealogies are given concerning the line
of descent which Jesus was born into. The one is in Luke 3:23-38, and
the other is in Matthew chapter 1. If Jesus had been conceived by the
Holy Ghost with a woman who was not from the pure line of Jewish
descent, the nation of Israel could have rejected Him as their King
and Messiah.
It is also interesting to note that AFTER the Jews rejected Jesus as
their Messiah in Acts 28:24-28, that Paul NEVER used the term “Son of
man” in ANY of his letters! In fact the term “Son of man” doesn’t show
up again until the book of Revelation, when God again begins to deal
with the Jews.
Now I need to end this email. I am having a hard time staying awake! I
hope everything makes sense to you.
In Christ,
Bryan Denlinger
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